Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Virginia exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Virginia licenses Property & Casualty producers through Prometric, requiring 70% to pass. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus Virginia law - auto (the current 50/100/25 minimum limits and mandatory UM/UIM), property and homeowners (the standard fire policy, the FAIR Plan and the guaranty association), and workers' compensation (the 3-employee threshold and the employer's panel of physicians).
You need 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Virginia Code (Titles 38.2, 46.2 and 65.2) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Virginia bank contains 1069 questions (general insurance plus Virginia law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Under § 38.2-309, statements, declarations, and descriptions in an application for an insurance policy are deemed to be:
Why: Section 38.2-309 provides that all statements, declarations, and descriptions in an application (or in an application for reinstatement) are deemed representations and not warranties, and no such statement bars recovery unless clearly proved to be material to the risk and untrue.
Under § 38.2-1817, the prescribed examination fee must be set within what range?
Why: Section 38.2-1817(D) provides the prescribed examination fee shall not be less than $20 nor more than $100, and it is nonrefundable.
Under § 38.2-1606, how much advance notice must a member insurer receive of a Guaranty Association assessment?
Why: Section 38.2-1606(A)(3) requires each member insurer to be notified of the assessment at least thirty days before it is due.
When permanent-partial scheduled benefits under § 65.2-503 are paid simultaneously with temporary partial benefits under § 65.2-502, each combined payment counts against the 500-week maximum as:
Why: Section 65.2-503(E)(2) provides that where such payments are made simultaneously, each combined payment counts as two weeks against the total maximum allowable period of 500 weeks.
Equipment Breakdown (Boiler and Machinery) coverage primarily insures loss caused by:
Why: Equipment Breakdown coverage responds to sudden and accidental breakdown of pressure, mechanical, and electrical equipment, including resulting damage—exposures excluded by standard property forms.
A new NFIP flood policy generally does not take effect until how many days after the application and premium are submitted?
Why: The NFIP imposes a standard 30-day waiting period before a new flood policy becomes effective, to discourage buying coverage only when a flood is imminent.
In ocean marine, Freight coverage protects:
Why: Freight insurance covers the shipowner's potential loss of freight income (the money earned for transporting cargo) if a covered loss prevents delivery.
In an OCCURRENCE form, coverage is triggered by:
Why: An occurrence policy responds to injury or damage that takes place during the policy period, no matter when the claim is reported.
With auto liability split limits of 50/100/25, the maximum total paid for bodily injury to all persons in one accident is:
Why: The second number (100) is the per-accident bodily injury limit: $100,000.
Under § 38.2-1834.1(A), if an insurer terminates an agent's relationship for a reason set forth in § 38.2-1831, the insurer must certify the reason in writing to the Commission within:
Why: Section 38.2-1834.1(A) requires the insurer to certify in writing to the Commission the reason for a for-cause termination within 30 calendar days following the termination.
Under § 38.2-618, a person who discloses information in accordance with the privacy article generally has immunity from a defamation or invasion-of-privacy action, EXCEPT when the person:
Why: Section 38.2-618 grants immunity from defamation, invasion of privacy, or negligence causes of action for disclosing information in accordance with the article, but provides no immunity for disclosing or furnishing false information with malice or willful intent to injure.
Which of the following is excluded under PAP Part D physical damage coverage?
Why: Part D excludes losses due to wear and tear, freezing, mechanical or electrical breakdown, and road damage to tires (unless caused by another covered peril like theft).
18 U.S.C. § 1034 chiefly provides for:
Why: Section 1034 authorizes the Attorney General to bring civil actions, seek injunctions, and impose civil penalties against those who violate Section 1033.
Filing a written 30-day notice of accident with the employer under § 65.2-600 and filing a claim with the Commission under § 65.2-601 are best described as:
Why: They are separate requirements: § 65.2-600 requires 30-day written notice to the employer, while § 65.2-601 requires filing a claim with the Commission within two years.
Under the NFIP Write-Your-Own (WYO) program:
Why: Under the WYO program, participating private insurers issue and service standard NFIP policies in their own names, but the federal government bears the underwriting risk.
Compensation for permanent and total incapacity under § 65.2-503(C) (for example, total paralysis or a severe brain injury) continues for:
Why: Section 65.2-500(D) provides that compensation for permanent and total incapacity defined in § 65.2-503(C) continues for the lifetime of the injured employee without limit as to total amount.
Under § 38.2-1831, which is an enumerated ground for license action relating to an agent's handling of funds?
Why: Section 38.2-1831(6) lists improperly withholding, misappropriating, or converting any moneys or properties received in the course of doing insurance business as a ground for license action.
Under § 38.2-1826(D), the license authority of a resident agent terminates immediately when:
Why: Section 38.2-1826(D) provides that a resident agent's license authority terminates immediately when the agent moves his residence from the Commonwealth, regardless of notice to the Commission.
Under § 38.2-516, an insurer generally may not pay a commission to an appointed agent who replaces an existing individual accident and sickness policy with a substantially similar policy from the same insurer, except that it may pay compensation not exceeding:
Why: Section 38.2-516 prohibits paying a commission for intra-company replacement of a substantially similar individual accident and sickness policy, except to the extent the compensation does not exceed the renewal commission that would have been paid had the replaced policy continued in force.
Sara carries 100/300 UIM limits in Virginia. She is injured by an at-fault driver who has the state-minimum 50/100 bodily-injury liability. Sara's damages are $120,000. Absent any signed reduction election, how much can she potentially collect in total?
Why: Because Virginia's default UIM is paid without credit for available liability coverage, Sara can recover her full $120,000 loss: the $50,000 liability plus UIM up to her $100,000 per-person limit, which together exceed the damages.
What is the primary purpose of a coinsurance clause in commercial property insurance?
Why: Coinsurance encourages insureds to insure to value; if they underinsure below the required percentage, the loss payment is reduced proportionally.
Saying that a property insurance contract is personal means that it:
Why: A personal contract insures the individual against loss, not the property; it cannot be assigned to another party without the insurer's consent.
Which describes the typical underwriting attitude of a surety toward the principal?
Why: Surety underwriting evaluates the principal's character, capacity, and capital like a credit risk, anticipating no loss because the principal must indemnify the surety.
In insurance, exposure refers to:
Why: Exposure is a condition presenting a possibility of loss; it may or may not result in an actual loss.
If the insured fails to render proof of loss, under the mortgagee clause the mortgagee, upon notice, must render proof of loss within how many days thereafter?
Why: The mortgagee provision requires the mortgagee, upon notice, to render proof of loss within sixty days thereafter and be subject to the appraisal, payment, and suit provisions.
An insurer decides not to renew a Virginia auto policy at expiration for underwriting reasons. How much advance notice of nonrenewal must it provide?
Why: A refusal to renew must state an effective date at least 45 days after the notice is mailed or delivered to the insured.
Under § 38.2-1822, an individual or business entity conducting insurance business under an assumed or fictitious name must notify the Bureau of Insurance within how many days from the date the name is adopted (if not filed with the application)?
Why: Section 38.2-1822(E) requires notice to the Bureau either when the license application is filed or within 30 calendar days from the date the assumed or fictitious name is adopted.
Under § 38.2-615, the date set for a hearing after the Commission serves a statement of charges and notice of hearing must be at least:
Why: Section 38.2-615(A) provides that the date for the hearing shall be at least ten days after the date of service of the statement of charges and notice of hearing.
Which federal law would a producer most likely consult to determine whether a previously convicted individual may lawfully work in the insurance business?
Why: 18 U.S.C. 1033 and 1034 govern whether persons convicted of crimes involving dishonesty may engage in the business of insurance and the penalties for violations.
Under § 38.2-301, for individuals related closely by blood or by law, "insurable interest" means:
Why: Section 38.2-301(B)(1) defines insurable interest, for individuals related closely by blood or by law, as a substantial interest engendered by love and affection. For other persons, it is a lawful and substantial economic interest in the life, health, and bodily safety of the insured.