Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Virginia exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Virginia licenses Life & Health (Life, Annuities and Sickness) producers through Prometric (the Series 11-01 exam): 140 scored questions (plus 10 pretest), 150 minutes, and 70% to pass. The exam combines general insurance knowledge with Virginia insurance law (Title 38.2). This bank covers the Virginia law plus the general insurance content.
You need 70%. Practice each module to that level and run the full exam simulation before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Virginia Insurance Code (Title 38.2) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Virginia bank contains 1013 questions (general insurance plus Virginia law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
A 68-year-old retiree wants income payments to begin next month from a lump sum. The suitable product is a(n):
Why: A single-premium immediate annuity converts a lump sum into income beginning within one payment period.
Within how many days after receiving notice of the right to an external review of a final adverse determination must a covered person file a standard external review request with the Commission?
Why: § 38.2-3561(A) gives the covered person 120 days after receipt of the notice of the right to an external review to file a standard external review request in writing with the Commission.
The optional 'other insurance with other insurers' provision allows a health insurer to:
Why: This optional provision prorates the insurer's payment according to its proportion of the insured's total like coverage, preventing over-insurance.
A Medicare beneficiary delayed Part D for three years without other creditable drug coverage. The result is:
Why: Going without creditable coverage adds a permanent late-enrollment surcharge to the Part D premium.
A disability policy has a 30-day elimination period and a $4,000 monthly benefit. If the insured is disabled for 5 months, the total benefit paid is about:
Why: The first month (30-day elimination) pays nothing; 4 months are paid × $4,000 = $16,000.
An endowment policy is distinguished by the fact that it:
Why: An endowment pays the face amount either at the insured's death or upon reaching the maturity date while living; modern tax rules limit their use.
Under § 38.2-1867(B), for an approved classroom CE course, one credit hour is equivalent to a classroom hour providing at least:
Why: Section 38.2-1867(B) provides that, for an approved classroom course, a credit hour is equivalent to a classroom hour providing at least 50 minutes of continuous instruction or participation.
Under § 38.2-1834(G), an agent whose appointment has been terminated by an insurer is:
Why: Section 38.2-1834(G) prohibits a terminated agent from selling or soliciting applications or policies on behalf of that insurer unless and until reappointed; doing so is a violation subject to penalties under §§ 38.2-218 and 38.2-1831.
An insured is totally disabled and, after the waiting period, the policy's waiver of premium takes effect. This means the insured:
Why: Once the disability-based waiver of premium applies, premiums are waived (often retroactive to the start) while the disability continues, keeping coverage in force.
Because an insurance policy is drafted entirely by the insurer and the applicant simply accepts it, it is legally a contract of:
Why: A contract of adhesion is written by one party and offered on a take-it-or-leave-it basis, so ambiguities are construed against the drafter (the insurer).
Under the ACA, in-network preventive services such as immunizations and screenings must be covered:
Why: ACA-compliant plans must cover specified preventive services in-network with no copay, coinsurance, or deductible.
The 'law of large numbers' is important to insurers because it:
Why: The larger the pool of similar exposures, the more closely actual losses approach predicted losses, allowing accurate pricing.
Which definition of "annuities" matches Title 38.2?
Why: Section 38.2-106 defines "annuities" as all agreements to make periodic payments in specified or calculable sums pursuant to a contract for a stated period or for the life of the person(s) specified. It excludes life insurance contracts defined in § 38.2-102.
A life insurance policy's aviation exclusion typically denies the death benefit when the insured dies:
Why: Aviation exclusions usually apply to non-commercial flying (private pilots/crew); fare-paying passengers on scheduled flights remain covered.
The elimination period in a disability income policy functions as:
Why: The elimination (waiting) period is a 'time deductible'; a longer elimination period lowers the premium because the insurer pays for fewer short claims.
To reinstate a lapsed policy, an insured must typically provide evidence of insurability and:
Why: Reinstatement requires proof of insurability plus payment of overdue premiums with interest (and any loan), within the allowed window.
An agent born in an odd-numbered year holds a Virginia life and annuities license. Under § 38.2-1825.1, the license expires at the end of the agent's birth month in:
Why: Section 38.2-1825.1(A) provides that the license for an agent born in an odd-numbered year expires at the end of the agent's birth month in odd-numbered years.
'Rebating' generally refers to:
Why: Rebating is giving a prospect any inducement (such as part of the commission or a gift) not specified in the policy to persuade them to buy; it is illegal in most states.
A 'mutual' insurance company is:
Why: A mutual insurer is owned by its policyowners; dividends paid to them are treated as a nontaxable return of premium.
Under § 38.2-618, a person who discloses information in accordance with the privacy article generally has immunity from a defamation or invasion-of-privacy action, EXCEPT when the person:
Why: Section 38.2-618 grants immunity from defamation, invasion of privacy, or negligence causes of action for disclosing information in accordance with the article, but provides no immunity for disclosing or furnishing false information with malice or willful intent to injure.
In an equity-indexed annuity using the 'annual point-to-point' crediting method, interest is based on the index value:
Why: Annual point-to-point compares the index at the beginning and end of the year; high-water mark and monthly averaging are alternative methods.
A family maintenance policy combines whole life with level term to:
Why: Family maintenance adds level term to whole life; if the insured dies during the term, it pays income for a stated period from the date of death, then the face amount.
In a variable annuity, accumulation units measure the contract's value:
Why: Accumulation units track value during the accumulation phase; annuity units are used during the payout phase.
In a health maintenance organization (HMO), the primary care physician acts as a 'gatekeeper,' meaning the member usually must:
Why: In a gatekeeper HMO, the PCP coordinates care and must refer the member before specialist services are covered.
An insured and the sole primary beneficiary die in the same crash, order of death unknown. Under the Uniform Simultaneous Death Act, proceeds go to:
Why: The Act presumes the insured survived the beneficiary, so the proceeds pass to the contingent beneficiary or the insured's estate.
During the contestable period, the insurer discovers a material misrepresentation on the application. The insurer may:
Why: A material misrepresentation discovered within the contestable period lets the insurer rescind the contract.
'Churning' as an unfair practice refers to:
Why: Churning is using misrepresentation to replace a policy with another from the same insurer to generate new commissions; twisting involves different insurers.
A client wants to move funds from an old annuity into an LTC insurance policy tax-free. Under Section 1035, this is:
Why: Section 1035 permits tax-free exchanges from an annuity to a qualified long-term care policy.
Under the genetic information privacy rule of § 38.2-508.4, a health insurer may NOT do which of the following based on genetic information?
Why: Section 38.2-508.4(B) prohibits, on the basis of genetic information, terminating/restricting coverage, refusing to renew, excluding from coverage, imposing a waiting period, requiring an exclusionary rider, or establishing premium rate differentials.
Social Security disability benefits use a strict definition: the inability to engage in:
Why: SSDI requires inability to perform any substantial gainful activity (not just one's own occupation), expected to last at least 12 months or result in death.