Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Georgia exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Georgia licenses Property & Casualty producers through Pearson VUE, requiring 70% to pass. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus Georgia law - auto (including Georgia's add-on UM/UIM), property and homeowners, and workers' compensation.
You need 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Official Code of Georgia Annotated (O.C.G.A.) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Georgia bank contains 1006 questions (general insurance plus Georgia law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Loss of use (transportation expenses) coverage in the PAP for a theft loss typically begins:
Why: For a theft of the covered auto, transportation expense coverage typically begins a set number of hours (e.g., 48) after the theft is reported.
A technology consultant gives faulty advice causing a client a large financial loss (no bodily injury or property damage). The proper coverage is:
Why: Pure financial loss from negligent professional advice is covered by professional E&O, not the CGL which requires BI/PD (or a covered offense).
Private flood insurance, as opposed to NFIP coverage, is best described as:
Why: Private flood insurers compete with the NFIP and frequently offer higher limits, replacement cost on contents, or additional living expense not available under standard NFIP forms.
Unlike Part One, Part Two (Employers Liability) of the policy does include limits of liability. The three Part Two limits typically apply to:
Why: Part Two shows three limits: bodily injury by accident (each accident), bodily injury by disease (policy limit), and bodily injury by disease (each employee).
A machine made by a third party injures an employee. The employee collects WC, then sues the machine maker, who in turn sues the employer claiming the employer's negligence contributed. What is this type of claim that Part Two can cover?
Why: A third-party-over (or action-over) suit occurs when a third party sued by the employee brings the employer in for contribution; Part Two Employers Liability can respond to this.
A dry cleaner damages a customer's coat. The dry cleaner wants to pay for it regardless of fault to keep goodwill. Best coverage:
Why: A bailee's customer floater covers customers' goods in the bailee's care, often on a direct-damage basis regardless of the bailee's legal liability.
Under §33-32-1, the standard fire insurance policy is NOT required for which of the following?
Why: §33-32-1(b) states the standard fire policy is not required for casualty, marine and transportation, or growing-crops insurance.
Because the standard policy's Part One does not apply in monopolistic fund states (where coverage comes from the state fund), what does the policy still commonly provide for those states via endorsement?
Why: In monopolistic states, the state fund provides statutory benefits but not employers liability; a stop gap (Employers Liability) endorsement fills that gap.
An insurer wishing to comply with GLBA must provide its initial privacy notice to a customer:
Why: GLBA requires delivery of a privacy notice when the customer relationship is established and, historically, an annual notice describing information-sharing practices.
What is the typical special limit for theft of silverware, goldware, and pewterware under Coverage C?
Why: Theft of silverware, goldware, and pewterware is commonly subject to a $2,500 special limit under Coverage C.
Under O.C.G.A. §33-7-11(a)(3), UM coverage on a renewal policy need not be provided where:
Why: O.C.G.A. §33-7-11(a)(3) provides that UM need not be provided in or supplemental to a renewal policy where the named insured had previously rejected the coverage with the same insurer; the amount also need not be increased at renewal.
Under the ISO Commercial General Liability Coverage Form, which coverage part responds to bodily injury and property damage liability arising out of the insured's premises and operations?
Why: Coverage A insures bodily injury and property damage liability. Coverage B is personal and advertising injury; Coverage C is medical payments.
Under §33-24-44(c)(3), the combined penalty and interest for failing to return unearned premium may not exceed:
Why: §33-24-44(c)(3) caps the total penalty and interest at 50 percent of the refund due.
Why does Part One (Workers Compensation) of the standard policy contain no dollar limit of liability?
Why: Part One has no policy limit because the insurer agrees to pay whatever benefits the state statute requires; the statute, not the policy, controls the amount.
An Installation floater covers:
Why: An Installation floater covers materials and equipment during transit, storage, and installation until the work is accepted, common for HVAC or fixture installers.
An insured carries 100/300 add-on UM. The at-fault driver has 25/50/25 liability. Under Georgia's default add-on rule in O.C.G.A. §33-7-11(b)(1)(D)(ii)(I), how does the UM apply to the insured's bodily injury losses?
Why: Under add-on/excess UM, the insured's UM limits apply in addition to the at-fault driver's liability coverage; recovery is capped only at the insured's total economic and noneconomic losses, not reduced by the tortfeasor's limits.
Which Dwelling Policy coverage reimburses the owner for lost rents when a rented dwelling becomes uninhabitable due to a covered loss?
Why: Coverage D — Fair Rental Value pays the landlord for lost rental income when the rented premises cannot be used because of a covered peril.
To provide both hired and non-owned auto liability for a business that owns no vehicles, an agent would typically assign which symbols?
Why: Symbols 8 (hired autos) and 9 (non-owned autos) together provide hired and non-owned liability for a business without owned vehicles.
Under O.C.G.A. §33-7-11(j), if a UM insurer refuses in bad faith to pay a covered loss within 60 days of demand, it may be liable, in addition to the recovery, for a penalty of:
Why: O.C.G.A. §33-7-11(j) allows, on a finding of bad-faith refusal to pay within 60 days of demand, a penalty of not more than 25% of the recovery or $25,000 (whichever is greater) plus reasonable attorney's fees, determined in a separate action.
An automobile assigned-risk plan is a type of:
Why: Assigned-risk plans are auto residual markets that assign drivers who cannot obtain coverage voluntarily to insurers in proportion to their market share.
A boatowner wants liability protection for bodily injury to others caused by the vessel. This is provided under the yacht policy's:
Why: Protection and indemnity coverage in a yacht policy provides liability protection for bodily injury and property damage to others arising from operation of the vessel.
What is the primary purpose of a coinsurance clause in commercial property insurance?
Why: Coinsurance encourages insureds to insure to value; if they underinsure below the required percentage, the loss payment is reduced proportionally.
Under O.C.G.A. §40-3-36(a)(4)(A), a vehicle is generally treated as one that must have its title canceled (salvage) when damage would require replacement of certain major structural components, such as:
Why: O.C.G.A. §40-3-36(a)(4)(A) describes structural damage — replacement of the front clip, rear clip, frame, floor panel assembly, roof assembly, or a complete side — that requires the owner to deliver the title to the commissioner for cancellation.
A key function of the MCS-90 endorsement is that the insurer:
Why: The MCS-90 obligates the insurer to pay covered public liability judgments even if the policy would not otherwise respond, with a right to recover those payments from the insured.
Insurers require minimum 'underlying limits' for an umbrella because:
Why: Umbrellas require specified underlying limits; if the insured fails to maintain them, the umbrella pays only as if the required underlying limits existed.
A 'per person' limit in a liability policy applies to:
Why: A per-person limit caps the amount payable for bodily injury sustained by any single individual.
PAP Part E — Duties After an Accident or Loss requires the insured to:
Why: Part E requires prompt notice of the accident, cooperation, providing proof of loss, and allowing inspection, among other duties.
Under § 33-6-4(b)(8)(A)(iv)(I), refusing to insure an individual or charging a different rate for the same coverage because of that individual's race, color, or national or ethnic origin is treated as what?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-4(b)(8)(A)(iv)(I) treats refusing to insure or charging a different rate for the same coverage because of race, color, or national or ethnic origin as an unfair and deceptive act constituting unfair discrimination.
PAP Part A supplementary payments include all of the following EXCEPT:
Why: Supplementary payments include defense, bail bonds, post-judgment interest, and certain expenses, but NOT the damages themselves, which are paid within the liability limit.
Where an application is for an agent's or limited subagent's license, what must the application state under Code Section 33-23-8?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-8(b) requires that an application for an agent's or limited subagent's license state the kinds of insurance proposed to be transacted.