Each module is scored separately so you know exactly where you stand. The general section is the bulk of every state exam; most states require about 70% to pass.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
It covers the national, general-knowledge portion shared by every U.S. state's Life and Accident & Health producer exam - the largest part of the test. It is ideal if your state is not yet one of our dedicated state exams, or to drill the core concepts before adding your state's law section.
It covers the general portion, not your state's insurance-law section. Every state exam also has a state-specific part. If your state is listed on our home page, use that exam for full coverage; otherwise this gives you a strong head start on the majority of the material.
Most states require about 70%. Practise each module to that level and run the full exam simulation before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question is original, written to the standard NAIC-model general content outline shared across states, with a plain-English explanation.
The full general bank contains 657 questions across all the core Life & Health topics, with written explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access - and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Which type of care is generally NOT covered by Medicare?
Why: Medicare generally does not pay for long-term custodial care (help with daily living); it covers hospital, physician, and hospice care.
Under COBRA, the maximum continuation period for an employee who loses coverage due to termination or reduced hours is generally:
Why: Termination or reduced hours allows 18 months of COBRA continuation; events like divorce, death, or a child aging out allow up to 36 months.
A tax-qualified long-term care policy that meets federal standards generally offers:
Why: Tax-qualified LTC policies (under HIPAA standards) pay benefits income-tax-free (within per-diem limits) and allow a limited premium deduction.
An insured and the sole primary beneficiary die in the same crash, order of death unknown. Under the Uniform Simultaneous Death Act, proceeds go to:
Why: The Act presumes the insured survived the beneficiary, so the proceeds pass to the contingent beneficiary or the insured's estate.
A pre-existing condition exclusion in an individual health policy refers to:
Why: A pre-existing condition is one for which care was received within a stated look-back period before coverage began. On ACA-compliant individual major-medical plans, pre-existing condition exclusions are prohibited entirely; time-limited exclusions survive only on excepted or non-ACA products.
If the named beneficiary of a life policy is a minor child, the death proceeds:
Why: Insurers generally will not pay proceeds directly to a minor; a guardian, custodian, or trust receives and manages the funds.
The four essential elements required to form a valid insurance contract are offer and acceptance, competent parties, legal purpose, and:
Why: A valid contract requires agreement (offer/acceptance), consideration, competent parties, and a legal purpose.
A withdrawal from a nonqualified deferred annuity is taxed:
Why: Nonqualified annuity withdrawals come out earnings-first (LIFO) and are taxed as ordinary income (plus a possible penalty before 59½).
An annuitant has a $50,000 cost basis and a $100,000 expected return. Of each $10,000 annual payment, how much is taxable?
Why: Exclusion ratio = basis ÷ expected return = 50,000/100,000 = 50%. Half of each $10,000 payment ($5,000) is excluded; the other $5,000 is taxable.
Which managed-care plan typically requires members to select a primary care physician and obtain referrals to see specialists?
Why: An HMO uses a primary care physician 'gatekeeper' and referrals, with care generally limited to the network; a PPO allows out-of-network care at higher cost without referrals.
An annuity 'free-look' provision allows the purchaser to:
Why: The free-look period lets the buyer examine the annuity and return it within the stated number of days for a refund of premium.
A 'stock' insurance company is:
Why: A stock insurer is owned by shareholders (dividends are taxable shareholder dividends); a mutual insurer is owned by policyholders.
An insurer incorporated in another U.S. state but doing business in this state is a(n) ____ insurer.
Why: Domestic = incorporated in this state; foreign = another state; alien = another country.
A life insurance policy that fails the federal '7-pay test' is classified as a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC), meaning:
Why: A MEC keeps a tax-free death benefit, but living distributions are taxed gains-first (LIFO) with a 10% penalty before 59½.
For group term life insurance, the cost of employer-provided coverage exceeding $50,000 is:
Why: Employees are taxed (imputed income, via IRS Table I) on the cost of employer-paid group term coverage above $50,000.
Under a Section 162 executive bonus plan, the employer:
Why: The employer pays a deductible bonus equal to the premium; the employee owns the policy and reports the bonus as taxable income.
Unlike Original Medicare, a Medicare Advantage (Part C) plan must include:
Why: Medicare Advantage plans must cap annual out-of-pocket costs for Part A and B services; Original Medicare has no such maximum.
An insurer holding a certificate of authority to transact business in a state is said to be:
Why: An admitted/authorized insurer holds a certificate of authority; a nonadmitted insurer does not.
An insured and the primary beneficiary die together in a car accident, and the order of death cannot be determined. Under the common disaster clause, the proceeds go to:
Why: The common disaster provision presumes the insured survived the beneficiary, so proceeds pass to the contingent beneficiary or the insured's estate.
A life insurance policy's aviation exclusion typically denies the death benefit when the insured dies:
Why: Aviation exclusions usually apply to non-commercial flying (private pilots/crew); fare-paying passengers on scheduled flights remain covered.
A structured settlement annuity is typically used to:
Why: A structured settlement funds court/insurance settlement payments as periodic income; amounts for physical-injury claims are generally tax-free.
A disability policy has a 30-day probationary period for sickness. An insured who becomes ill on day 20 of coverage:
Why: The probationary period excludes sicknesses that begin during the initial waiting span (here, the first 30 days); accidents are usually covered immediately.
In a variable annuity, accumulation units measure the contract's value:
Why: Accumulation units track value during the accumulation phase; annuity units are used during the payout phase.
Under the 'entire contract' provision in a health policy, the contract consists of:
Why: The entire contract is the policy plus the attached application; nothing not attached at issue can be made part of the contract.
An insured with a $100,000 policy dies during the grace period while owing a $200 premium. The beneficiary receives:
Why: Coverage stays in force during the grace period; the claim is paid with the overdue premium deducted: $100,000 − $200 = $99,800.
The McCarran-Ferguson Act established that the insurance business is primarily regulated by:
Why: McCarran-Ferguson (1945) affirmed that regulation of insurance is left to the states, except where federal law specifically applies.
The 'reduced paid-up' nonforfeiture option uses the policy's cash value to:
Why: Reduced paid-up uses the net cash value as a single premium to purchase a smaller amount of fully paid-up permanent insurance; extended term instead keeps the full face for a limited period.
A 60-year-old annuity owner withdraws $5,000 of gain. Because the owner is past 59½, the withdrawal is:
Why: After 59½ the 10% premature-distribution penalty no longer applies; the gain is still ordinary income.
Medicare Part B generally pays what share of the approved amount after the annual deductible is met?
Why: After the Part B deductible, Medicare typically pays 80% of the approved amount and the beneficiary pays the remaining 20% coinsurance.
'Twisting' is an unfair trade practice defined as:
Why: Twisting is inducing a policy replacement through misrepresentation or incomplete comparisons; doing so within the same insurer is called churning.