Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Georgia exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Georgia administers its Life, Accident & Sickness licensing exams through Pearson VUE. The combined Life, Accident & Sickness exam has 125 scored questions and runs 150 minutes; the separate Life and Accident & Sickness exams have 80 scored questions each (plus 20 pretest) and run 120 minutes. Each exam has a national section and a Georgia state-law section, and you need 70% on each section to pass. This bank covers both the general insurance material and the Georgia law for both lines.
You need 70%. Practice each module to that level and run the full exam simulation before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Georgia Insurance Code (O.C.G.A. Title 33) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Georgia bank contains 1019 questions (general insurance plus Georgia law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Unlike Original Medicare, a Medicare Advantage (Part C) plan must include:
Why: Medicare Advantage plans must cap annual out-of-pocket costs for Part A and B services; Original Medicare has no such maximum.
A licensed agent moves his legal residence from Georgia to another state. Under Code Section 33-23-16(c), he must file a change of address and provide certification from the new home state within:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-16(c) requires a nonresident or resident agent who moves to file a change of address and provide certification from the new resident home state within 30 days of the change in legal residence; no fee or application is required.
Which type of life insurance provides lifelong coverage with a level premium and a guaranteed cash value?
Why: Whole life is permanent coverage with a level premium and a guaranteed, tax-deferred cash value. Term provides only temporary coverage with no cash value.
Is an attorney admitted to practice in Georgia treated as an 'agent' when collecting premiums incidental to the practice of law?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-1(b)(1) excludes from agent, subagent, and counselor an attorney at law admitted in this state when handling premium collections or advising clients about insurance incidental to the practice of law.
An insured dies in the third policy year and the insurer discovers a non-fraudulent misstatement on the application. The insurer must:
Why: After the two-year contestable period, the insurer cannot contest the policy for non-fraudulent misstatements, so the claim is paid.
The HIPAA Privacy Rule primarily protects:
Why: HIPAA's Privacy Rule safeguards protected health information (PHI), generally requiring authorization before disclosure.
A health reimbursement arrangement (HRA) differs from a health savings account (HSA) in that an HRA is:
Why: An HRA is employer-funded and employer-owned (not portable); an HSA is owned by the individual and requires a qualified HDHP.
Money left in a typical health flexible spending account (FSA) at year-end is:
Why: FSAs are generally use-it-or-lose-it, though plans may allow a limited carryover or grace period.
A 52-year-old withdraws $8,000 of gain from a nonqualified annuity. The IRS penalty (besides income tax) is:
Why: Premature distributions before 59½ incur a 10% penalty: 10% × $8,000 = $800.
Survivorship (second-to-die) life insurance is most commonly used to:
Why: It pays at the second death and is widely used to fund estate taxes and costs.
An investor with no relationship to the insured arranges and funds a policy intending to profit from the death benefit. This is:
Why: STOLI lacks insurable interest and is illegal; policies must be founded on a genuine insurable interest at inception.
Under a universal life policy's Option A (Option 1), the death benefit is:
Why: Option A keeps a level death benefit (cash value accumulates within it); Option B pays the face amount plus the cash value, so it increases.
Because an insurance policy is drafted entirely by the insurer and the applicant simply accepts it, it is legally a contract of:
Why: A contract of adhesion is written by one party and offered on a take-it-or-leave-it basis, so ambiguities are construed against the drafter (the insurer).
A SIMPLE IRA retirement plan is intended for:
Why: A SIMPLE IRA is for small employers (generally up to 100 employees) and combines employee salary-reduction contributions with required employer contributions.
A temporary insurance license is most commonly issued to:
Why: Temporary licenses (no exam) let someone service an existing book when a producer dies, becomes disabled, or enters military service.
The 'actively-at-work' provision in a group plan requires that, for coverage to take effect, the employee must:
Why: The actively-at-work provision conditions coverage on the employee being at work (not home ill) on the date it would otherwise begin.
Regarding examinations, which limitation does the statute place on the Commissioner's authority to grant exemptions?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-10(b)(2) provides that the Commissioner shall not, under any circumstances, exempt himself or herself from any written examination requirement set forth in the Code section.
In group insurance underwriting, the insurer primarily evaluates:
Why: Group underwriting assesses the group as a unit (size, industry, turnover, purpose), not each member individually.
A major medical plan has a $500 deductible and 80/20 coinsurance. On a $5,500 covered bill, how much does the insured pay?
Why: Insured pays the $500 deductible, then 20% of the remaining $5,000 = $1,000, for a total of $1,500.
An Explanation of Benefits (EOB) sent to an insured is:
Why: An EOB is not a bill; it itemizes the charge, the plan's allowed amount, what the plan paid, and the patient's remaining responsibility.
A family income policy combines whole life with:
Why: A family income policy adds decreasing term to whole life; if the insured dies during the period, it pays monthly income to the end of the period, then the face amount.
An adjuster who represents the interest of the insurer but is NOT an employee of that insurer is statutorily classified as a/an:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-1(a)(8) defines an 'independent adjuster' as an adjuster representing the interest of the insurer who is not an employee of such insurer.
A holder of a temporary license issued under Code Section 33-23-13(a) is authorized to do all of the following EXCEPT:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-13(d) authorizes negotiation of renewals, receipt and collection of premiums, and acts necessary to continuance, but expressly does NOT authorize the holder to sell, solicit, or negotiate new insurance accounts.
Federal law (IRC 101(j)) generally requires that, for employer-owned life insurance death proceeds to remain tax-free, the employer must:
Why: For employer-owned (COLI/BOLI) policies, the insured employee must be notified and consent in writing before issue, or the death benefit above basis becomes taxable.
Social Security disability benefits use a strict 'any occupation' definition and require a waiting period of:
Why: SSDI uses a strict any-occupation definition and has a 5-month elimination period before benefits begin.
To meet Georgia's residency qualification, an individual applicant must be a resident who resides and is present within the state for at least:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-5(a)(1) requires that the applicant be a resident who shall reside and be present within this state for at least six months of every year, or whose principal place of business is within this state.
An insured with a $4,000 monthly benefit suffers a residual disability causing a 50% loss of income. The residual benefit is about:
Why: Residual benefits are proportional to income lost: 50% income loss × $4,000 = $2,000.
A 'market conduct' examination by regulators reviews an insurer's:
Why: Market conduct exams assess how an insurer treats consumers — marketing, underwriting, policyholder service, and claims handling.
An agent binding an insurer to a risk the company did not intend to cover is an example of which type of authority?
Why: Apparent authority is the appearance of authority a reasonable client perceives; express and implied are actually granted, so the distractors describe legitimate authority.
Concurrent utilization review in a managed-care plan assesses:
Why: Concurrent review evaluates the necessity and appropriateness of care during treatment (e.g., an ongoing hospital stay); prospective review occurs before, retrospective after.