Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Georgia exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Georgia administers its Life, Accident & Sickness licensing exams through Pearson VUE. The combined Life, Accident & Sickness exam has 125 scored questions and runs 150 minutes; the separate Life and Accident & Sickness exams have 80 scored questions each (plus 20 pretest) and run 120 minutes. Each exam has a national section and a Georgia state-law section, and you need 70% on each section to pass. This bank covers both the general insurance material and the Georgia law for both lines.
You need 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Georgia Insurance Code (O.C.G.A. Title 33) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Georgia bank contains 1023 questions (general insurance plus Georgia law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Under § 33-6-9, before imposing a penalty for violating a cease and desist order, what must occur?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-9 requires notice and hearing and an order of the Commissioner before a penalty may be imposed for violating a cease and desist order.
Nonoccupational disability coverage pays benefits for disabilities that occur:
Why: Nonoccupational coverage excludes on-the-job injuries (covered by workers' compensation); occupational/24-hour coverage applies both on and off the job.
'Controlled business' refers to insurance a producer writes:
Why: Controlled business is coverage on the producer's own interests; states limit it so licenses aren't obtained merely to self-deal.
Under the uniform individual health provisions, the grace period for a policy with monthly premiums is:
Why: Health grace periods are 7 days for weekly premium, 10 days for monthly, and 31 days for all other modes.
Per the definitions in O.C.G.A. § 33-21-1, a "health maintenance organization" is best described as any person who:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-21-1(6) defines a "health maintenance organization" as any person who undertakes to provide or arrange for one or more health benefits plans.
Per O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2, coverage is expressly NOT provided for a portion of a policy issued to a self-funded or uninsured employer plan. Which arrangement is listed as an example?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2 lists a multiple employer welfare arrangement as an example of a self-funded or uninsured employer plan for which coverage is not provided.
A central purpose of the coverage rules in O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2 is reflected in its statement that, where a person could otherwise be covered by more than one state's association, the chapter is construed to:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2(b)(5) construes the chapter, where a person could otherwise be covered by more than one state's association, to avoid duplicate coverage so the person is covered by only one association.
A reversionary annuity contract issued in Georgia is in default. Under O.C.G.A. § 33-28-2, it may be reinstated within what period from default, upon evidence of insurability satisfactory to the insurer?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-28-2(b)(7) permits reinstatement of a defaulted reversionary annuity within three years from default upon evidence of insurability satisfactory to the insurer.
A holder of a temporary license issued under Code Section 33-23-13(a) is authorized to do all of the following EXCEPT:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-13(d) authorizes negotiation of renewals, receipt and collection of premiums, and acts necessary to continuance, but expressly does NOT authorize the holder to sell, solicit, or negotiate new insurance accounts.
A Medicare SELECT policy is a type of Medigap that:
Why: Medicare SELECT is a Medigap policy that requires using network providers (except emergencies) in return for a lower premium.
A bank tells a borrower the loan will be approved only if they buy the lender's insurance. This unfair practice is:
Why: Using economic force — conditioning a loan on buying particular insurance — is coercion.
A 'per stirpes' beneficiary designation means that, if a beneficiary dies before the insured, that beneficiary's share:
Why: Per stirpes sends a deceased beneficiary's share down to that person's descendants; per capita splits only among surviving named beneficiaries.
A primary tax advantage of a deferred annuity during accumulation is that earnings:
Why: Annuity earnings accumulate tax-deferred; taxes apply only when distributions are taken.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-23-9, when the Commissioner has designated textbooks, manuals, or other materials for a license classification, all examination questions shall be:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-9 provides that when textbooks, manuals, or other materials are designated or prepared at the Commissioner's direction, all examination questions shall be prepared from the contents of those materials.
Per O.C.G.A. § 33-38-7, with respect to one owner of multiple nongroup life insurance policies, the Association's total obligation may not exceed:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-7(a)(12)(D) provides that the Association's total obligation for one owner of multiple nongroup life policies may not exceed $5 million in benefits.
Which permanent policy features flexible premiums and an adjustable death benefit?
Why: Universal life allows the owner to vary premium payments and adjust the death benefit (subject to underwriting); cash value earns a declared interest rate.
A $1,000 covered expense is submitted to two health plans. The primary plan pays $800. Under coordination of benefits, the secondary plan typically pays:
Why: COB limits total payment to 100% of the expense; the secondary plan pays the remaining $200, not a duplicate benefit.
After receiving a notice of appointment, the Commissioner must verify the agent's eligibility for appointment within a reasonable time not to exceed:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-16(g)(1)(B) requires the Commissioner to verify eligibility within a reasonable time, not to exceed 30 days, and to notify the insurer within five days if the agent is ineligible.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-21-13, an HMO files an evidence-of-coverage form and the Commissioner takes no action. What happens at the expiration of 90 days?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-21-13 provides that at the expiration of 90 days a filed form, basic rate, or method of computation is deemed approved unless it is approved or disapproved before then.
For participating Georgia life policies, the insurer must begin to annually ascertain and apportion the divisible surplus no later than the end of which policy year?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-25-3(a)(4) requires the insurer in participating policies to begin annually ascertaining and apportioning the divisible surplus no later than the end of the third policy year.
Under a Section 162 executive bonus plan, the employer pays the premium as a bonus. The employer:
Why: The employer deducts the bonus as compensation; the employee owns the policy and includes the bonus in taxable income.
Premiums a business pays for key person life insurance are:
Why: Key person premiums are not deductible (the business is the beneficiary), but the death benefit is generally received income-tax-free.
What is a stated purpose of Georgia's Long-Term Care Insurance chapter?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-42-2 states that a purpose of the Long-Term Care Insurance chapter is to protect applicants from unfair or deceptive sales or enrollment practices.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-20A-6, a managed care plan must make full and timely payment or reimbursement to providers and hospitals in the same manner and subject to the same penalties as required of insurers for which type of coverage?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-20A-6(b) requires a managed care plan to make full and timely payment to providers and hospitals in the same manner and subject to the same penalties as insurers for group accident and sickness policies under 33-30-6(b)(5).
A disability buy-sell policy's benefits are used to:
Why: Disability buy-sell provides funds for remaining owners to buy out an owner who becomes totally disabled, separate from income replacement or overhead coverage.
A producer offers to give a prospect part of the first-year commission if they buy the policy. This is:
Why: Offering an inducement not stated in the policy (such as sharing commission) to persuade a purchase is rebating, illegal in most states.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-21-3, what must an HMO do before changing its address?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-21-3 requires an HMO, before changing its address, to return the certificate of authority to the Commissioner of Insurance, who shall endorse it to indicate the change.
The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) primarily:
Why: The NAIC is a coordinating body of state regulators that drafts model laws and promotes uniformity; it has no direct regulatory authority of its own.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-23-35, a willful violation involving premium funds is generally a misdemeanor, but it rises to a felony when the amounts involved exceed:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-35(c) states that a willful violation constitutes a misdemeanor unless the amounts involved exceed $1,000.00, in which case the violation constitutes a felony.
Under Georgia's standard annuity provisions, the reinstatement window of within one year from default does NOT apply to which type of contract?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-28-2(b)(6) provides that the one-year reinstatement window does not apply to reversionary annuities.