Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real New York exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
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New York licenses Property & Casualty brokers and agents through PSI, requiring 70% to pass. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus New York law - no-fault auto (Article 51), property and homeowners (the standard fire policy and Regulation 35-D), and workers' compensation.
You need 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the New York Insurance Law, Vehicle & Traffic Law and Workers' Compensation Law for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full New York bank contains 1012 questions (general insurance plus New York law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
What is the maximum fine that may be imposed on an insurer that fails to report a termination for cause, or reports in bad faith, under § 2112?
Why: Section 2112(i) provides that an insurer may be fined up to five thousand dollars for such a failure, after notice and hearing.
A Contractors Equipment floater typically covers:
Why: The Contractors Equipment floater is an inland marine form covering mobile tools, machinery, and equipment a contractor uses at various job sites.
The section of a policy that contains the named insured, address, policy period, limits, and premium is the:
Why: The declarations page personalizes the policy with the insured's identifying information, coverage limits, and premium.
When a worker dies from a compensable injury, workers' compensation typically provides:
Why: Death benefits provide income (survivor) benefits to the deceased worker's dependents and a statutory burial/funeral allowance.
Under § 2112, when an insurer terminates a producer's certificate of appointment for cause, when must it file a statement of facts with the superintendent?
Why: Section 2112(d) requires filing the statement of the facts relative to a termination for cause within thirty days.
The CGL Medical Expense (Coverage C) limit typically applies:
Why: The Medical Expense Limit applies per person and the total is subject to the Each Occurrence Limit.
Under § 2606, a policy condition that binds the insured to accept less than the full value of the policy on a claim — where no similar condition is imposed on others in similar cases — is:
Why: Section 2606(a)(4) provides that such a discriminatory stipulation or condition, made or inserted where not imposed on others in similar cases, shall be void.
A producer knowingly accepts insurance business from a person who is not licensed. Under § 2110, this is:
Why: Section 2110(a)(12) makes knowingly accepting insurance business from an unlicensed individual a ground for revocation or suspension.
For how long from the date of the accident are No-Fault lost-earnings benefits payable?
Why: Ins. Law §5102(a)(2) pays loss of earnings for not more than three years from the date of the accident.
The Miscellaneous Type Vehicle endorsement to the PAP can extend coverage to:
Why: The Miscellaneous Type Vehicle endorsement provides PAP coverage for vehicles such as motorcycles, motor homes, dune buggies, golf carts, and ATVs.
A reciprocal insurer is best described as:
Why: A reciprocal or interinsurance exchange is an unincorporated association of subscribers who exchange insurance among themselves, administered by an attorney-in-fact.
Which is an example of a direct loss?
Why: Direct loss is immediate physical damage to property; the fire damage to the structure is direct, while income/expense impacts are indirect.
For personal lines insurance under §3425, the 'required policy period' during which nonrenewal or conditional renewal is restricted to cancellation-type grounds is:
Why: §3425(a)(7) defines the required policy period for personal lines insurance as three years from the date the covered policy is first issued or voluntarily renewed.
The condition requiring the insured to promptly notify the insurer, protect property from further damage, and cooperate after a loss describes:
Why: The duties after a loss condition lists the insured's obligations, including prompt notice, protecting property, providing proof of loss, and cooperating.
Under §52, an employer that fails to secure the payment of compensation for five or fewer employees within a twelve-month period commits:
Why: Section 52(1)(a) makes failure to secure compensation for five or fewer employees within a twelve-month period a misdemeanor, punishable by a fine of not less than $1,000 nor more than $5,000.
When an applicant submits a completed application with the initial premium, the applicant is generally making the:
Why: In insurance, the applicant typically makes the offer by submitting the application and premium; the insurer accepts by issuing the policy.
Under §3425(e), during the required policy period, a notice of nonrenewal or conditional renewal of a personal lines covered policy may be issued only if:
Why: §3425(e) provides that during the required policy period, no nonrenewal or conditional renewal may become effective unless based upon a ground for which the policy could have been cancelled.
Injuries to civilian federal government employees (such as a postal or federal agency worker) are covered under:
Why: FECA provides workers' compensation benefits to civilian employees of the federal government for job-related injuries and illnesses.
Where an employer is a corporation, §52 provides that liability for failure to secure compensation extends to:
Why: Section 52(1)(c) provides that where the employer is a corporation, the president, secretary, and treasurer are liable for the failure to secure the payment of compensation (subject to an affirmative defense of reasonable steps).
Under §11, if an employer fails to secure the payment of compensation as required by §50, the injured employee may:
Why: Section 11 provides that if the employer fails to secure compensation as required by §50, the injured employee (or legal representative if death results) may, at his or her option, elect to claim compensation under the chapter or maintain an action at law for damages.
Section 2119(d) prohibits a broker, absent a proper written fee agreement, from charging the insured more than what?
Why: Section 2119(d) bars a broker from charging or receiving from the insured any greater sum than the premium rate fixed by the insurer, unless a right to compensation exists under subsection (c).
An insured intentionally damages a third party's property. Under a standard liability policy, this loss is most likely:
Why: Liability coverage applies to occurrences (accidents); intentional acts are typically excluded because they are not accidental.
Shareholders sue a corporation's board alleging mismanagement caused a stock drop. Which policy responds?
Why: Claims against directors and officers for wrongful management acts are handled by D&O liability insurance.
PAP Part E — Duties After an Accident or Loss requires the insured to:
Why: Part E requires prompt notice of the accident, cooperation, providing proof of loss, and allowing inspection, among other duties.
Which perils does the Broad Causes of Loss form ADD beyond the Basic form?
Why: The Broad form adds falling objects; weight of snow, ice, or sleet; water damage; and includes a limited collapse provision.
Section 2108(o) restricts an adjuster's conduct in transacting business. What does it prohibit?
Why: Section 2108(o) bars a licensee from making any misrepresentation of facts or advising any person on questions of law in transacting adjuster business.
Which of the following is a residual market mechanism rather than a risk-financing alternative?
Why: A joint underwriting association is a residual market providing coverage otherwise unavailable, whereas captives, self-insurance, and RRGs are alternative risk-financing techniques.
Workers' compensation benefits are described as 'no-fault.' What does this mean?
Why: Workers' compensation is a no-fault system: an injured worker receives statutory benefits regardless of whether the employer, the employee, or neither was at fault.
How many credit hours of continuing education must a person licensed under Article 21 complete each full biennial licensing period under § 2132?
Why: Section 2132(c)(1) requires instruction equivalent to fifteen credit hours during each full biennial licensing period.
A property worth $500,000 has a 90% coinsurance requirement. The insured carries $360,000 and has a $50,000 loss. Ignoring deductible, the insurer pays:
Why: Required = 90% x $500,000 = $450,000. Did/should = $360,000/$450,000 = 0.80. Payment = 0.80 x $50,000 = $40,000.