Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Massachusetts exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Massachusetts licenses Property producers and Casualty producers as separate exams of 100 scored questions each (2 hours, 70% to pass), moving from Prometric to Pearson VUE on 22 July 2026. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus Massachusetts law - compulsory auto (the 25/50/30 minimum limits, PIP no-fault and the Massachusetts auto policy under c.90 and c.175), the standard fire policy, the Insurers Insolvency Fund, surplus lines and the FAIR plan, and workers' compensation under c.152.
You need 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Massachusetts General Laws (c.175, c.90 and c.152) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Massachusetts bank contains 968 questions (general insurance plus Massachusetts law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §162M, the 'personal lines' line of authority is property and casualty coverage sold to...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §162M defines personal lines as property and casualty insurance coverage sold to individuals and families for primarily noncommercial purposes — therefore the third option is correct.
A boatowners or yacht policy typically combines which two coverage parts?
Why: Yacht and boatowners policies pair hull coverage for physical damage to the vessel with protection and indemnity (liability) coverage.
A large, financially strong corporation chooses to retain its own workers' compensation risk and pay benefits directly, with state approval. This arrangement is called:
Why: Qualified self-insurance allows financially sound employers, with state approval and security/bonding, to pay WC benefits directly rather than buying a policy.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §4D, insurers writing homeowners' insurance and the FAIR Plan must make available coverage for:
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §4D requires homeowners insurers and the JUA to make available first- and third-party coverage for a release of heating oil from a residential fuel tank — therefore that coverage.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §162V, a P&C producer must report an administrative action taken against him in another jurisdiction within 30 days of...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §162V requires a producer to report an administrative action within 30 days of the final disposition of the matter — therefore the third option is correct.
An insurer refuses to settle a claim though its liability has become reasonably clear, forcing the insured to sue. Under M.G.L. c.176D §3, this is...?
Why: M.G.L. c.176D §3(9)(f) lists failing to effectuate prompt, fair and equitable settlements of claims in which liability has become reasonably clear as an unfair claim settlement practice — therefore the first option is correct.
An insurer wishing to comply with GLBA must provide its initial privacy notice to a customer:
Why: GLBA requires delivery of a privacy notice when the customer relationship is established and, historically, an annual notice describing information-sharing practices.
A joint underwriting association (JUA) is best described as:
Why: A JUA is a residual market in which multiple insurers join to provide a hard-to-place coverage (such as medical malpractice), sharing the resulting premiums, profits, and losses.
A Named Non-Owner policy is appropriate for a person who:
Why: A named non-owner policy provides liability (and related) coverage to an individual who does not own a vehicle but drives others' or rented cars.
Under c.152 §34, temporary total incapacity benefits are payable for a maximum of...?
Why: c.152 §34 caps temporary total incapacity benefits at 156 weeks — therefore 156 weeks.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §32, before issuing a certificate, the commissioner must be satisfied a domestic company has employed, among others,...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §32 requires the company to have employed a competent accountant, a competent claim manager and a competent and experienced underwriter before the certificate issues — therefore the fourth option is correct.
An admitted (authorized) insurer is one that:
Why: An admitted or authorized insurer has been granted a certificate of authority by the state insurance department to transact business there.
A reciprocal insurer is best described as:
Why: A reciprocal or interinsurance exchange is an unincorporated association of subscribers who exchange insurance among themselves, administered by an attorney-in-fact.
Under c.175 §22E, an insurer may NOT refuse to issue or renew an auto policy because of the applicant's...?
Why: c.175 §22E prohibits refusal to issue or renew based on age, sex, race, occupation, marital status, or principal place of garaging — therefore those protected characteristics.
A contractor's CGL would NOT cover which of the following because of the 'your work' exclusion?
Why: The 'your work' exclusion bars coverage for damage to the insured's own completed work; the CGL is not a warranty of workmanship.
Section 37 of c.152 (Second Injury Fund) requires that the employer, before the second injury, had...?
Why: c.152 §37 requires the employer to have had personal knowledge of the pre-existing physical impairment (obtained within 30 days of hiring or retention) to qualify for reimbursement — therefore prior personal knowledge of the impairment.
Which of the following is typically a FIRST-PARTY coverage under a cyber policy?
Why: First-party cyber coverages reimburse the insured's own costs, such as breach notification, forensics, and data restoration.
When an employer is held responsible for the negligent acts of an employee committed within the scope of employment, this is:
Why: Vicarious liability holds one party (e.g., an employer) responsible for the actions of another (e.g., an employee acting within the scope of employment).
Under c.90 §34K, a power of attorney to cancel a motor vehicle liability policy cannot be exercised until notice is given to the policyholder of at least...?
Why: c.90 §34K requires at least 10 days' notice by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, before a power of attorney to cancel may be exercised — therefore 10 days by registered/certified mail.
Under M.G.L. c.176D §6, the notice of hearing on a charge of an unfair method or practice must set a hearing not less than...?
Why: M.G.L. c.176D §6 requires the notice of hearing to be held at a time not less than twenty-one days after the date of service — therefore the fourth option is correct.
Suitability in insurance sales means a producer should:
Why: Suitability requires that recommendations fit the client's actual needs, financial situation, and objectives rather than the producer's compensation.
Builders Risk coverage typically ends when:
Why: Builders Risk coverage typically terminates when the property is accepted by the owner, occupied, or the policy expires/is cancelled, whichever happens first.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §177B, an applicant for an insurance adviser license must, before licensure,...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §177B requires the applicant to appear and take a written examination prepared and administered by the commissioner or an independent testing service — therefore the third option is correct.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §32, a domestic company may not issue any policies until it has obtained from the commissioner...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §32 provides that no domestic company shall issue any policies until it has obtained a certificate from the commissioner authorizing it to make or issue such policies — therefore the third option is correct.
A heating contractor ships and installs a new furnace; the equipment is stolen from the job site before acceptance. Best coverage:
Why: An Installation floater covers materials and equipment during transit, storage, and installation until the work is accepted by the owner.
An insured carries $80,000 on contents valued at $100,000 with an 80% coinsurance clause. A $10,000 partial loss occurs (no deductible). The insurer pays:
Why: Required = 80% × $100,000 = $80,000. Insurance carried equals the requirement, so the full $10,000 loss is paid.
Under 211 CMR 131.00, Massachusetts homeowners insurance policies must include coverage for:
Why: 211 CMR 131.00 mandates that homeowners policies provide lead-poisoning liability coverage — therefore lead-poisoning bodily-injury liability must be included.
Builders Risk coverage is designed to insure:
Why: Builders Risk insures buildings or structures while under construction, including materials and supplies intended to become part of the structure.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §168, a special insurance broker license issued by the commissioner:
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §168 provides that the special broker license expires one year from issuance unless sooner suspended or revoked — therefore one year.
Unlike Part One, Part Two (Employers Liability) of the policy does include limits of liability. The three Part Two limits typically apply to:
Why: Part Two shows three limits: bodily injury by accident (each accident), bodily injury by disease (policy limit), and bodily injury by disease (each employee).