Evergreen Insurance Prep

Ohio Property & Casualty Insurance License, Practice Exams

Ohio Property & Casualty producer licensing. National P&C insurance knowledge plus Ohio insurance law (auto, property and homeowners, workers' compensation), authored from public-domain statutes.
Content last updated 2 July 2026

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Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Ohio exam you need 70%.

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The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.

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Frequently asked questions

How is the Ohio producer licensing exam structured?

Ohio licenses Property & Casualty producers through PSI, requiring 70% to pass. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus Ohio law - auto, property and homeowners (including the Valued Policy Law), and workers' compensation (Ohio's monopolistic state-fund system).

What score do I need to pass?

You need 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.

Are these real exam questions?

No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Ohio Revised Code for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.

How many practice questions are included?

The full Ohio bank contains 994 questions (general insurance plus Ohio law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.

What does access cost?

$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.

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No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.

Sample Ohio Property & Casualty Insurance License practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

Liberalization is a policy condition that:

  1. Reduces coverage automatically unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  2. Adds liability
  3. Cancels the policy
  4. Automatically extends any broadened coverage to existing policyholders without additional premium ✓

Why: The liberalization clause provides that if the insurer broadens coverage without additional premium during the policy period, the broadened coverage applies automatically to the existing policy.

Under ORC §3955.01, a claim due under a policy issued to a large insured is excluded when the insured's net worth exceeds what threshold on the last day of its fiscal year preceding insolvency?

  1. $100 million
  2. $50 million ✓
  3. $10 million
  4. $25 million

Why: §3955.01(D)(2)(h) excludes claims due under a policy issued to an insured whose net worth exceeds fifty million dollars on the last day of its fiscal year preceding the insurer's insolvency.

At least how far in advance must the superintendent send a renewal notice to a resident agent licensee?

  1. No advance notice is required by statute
  2. At least one month prior to the renewal date ✓
  3. At least one week before the renewal date
  4. At least 90 days before the renewal date

Why: § 3905.06(C)(1) states the superintendent shall send a renewal notice at least one month prior to the renewal date.

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Loss of use (transportation expenses) coverage in the PAP for a theft loss typically begins:

  1. After a waiting period (e.g., 48 hours) following the theft ✓
  2. Immediately at the time of theft
  3. Never for theft
  4. Only after the vehicle is recovered in that particular circumstance

Why: For a theft of the covered auto, transportation expense coverage typically begins a set number of hours (e.g., 48) after the theft is reported.

Every Ohio automobile insurance policy must be issued for a period of, or guaranteed renewable for successive periods totaling, at least how long?

  1. Two years
  2. The registration period of the vehicle
  3. Six months
  4. One year ✓

Why: ORC §3937.31(A) requires a policy period of not less than one year or guaranteed renewability for successive periods totaling not less than one year.

The CGL contractual liability exclusion contains an important exception for:

  1. Liability the insured would have without the contract, and liability assumed in an 'insured contract' ✓
  2. Pollution cleanup unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force according to the insurer's rules
  3. Punitive damages
  4. War risks

Why: Liability assumed under an 'insured contract' (and liability that would exist absent the contract) is excepted from the contractual liability exclusion, so it remains covered.

Which statement best describes how an Ohio employer obtains workers' compensation coverage?

  1. By purchasing coverage from a mandatory assigned-risk pool operated by private carriers unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  2. By purchasing a policy from any admitted property & casualty insurer licensed in Ohio
  3. By posting a surety bond with the county in which the employer operates
  4. By paying premiums into the Ohio state insurance fund administered by the Bureau of Workers' Compensation, or qualifying as a self-insuring employer ✓

Why: Ohio is a monopolistic state-fund jurisdiction: under ORC 4123.35 employers pay premiums into the state insurance fund (administered by the BWC) or, if qualified, self-insure. Private carriers may not write Ohio workers' compensation.

Under § 3901.25, after the § 3901.24 notice is given, how long must the insurer fail to cease its false misrepresentations before the superintendent takes action under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26?

  1. Fifteen days
  2. Thirty days ✓
  3. Ten days
  4. Sixty days

Why: Section 3901.25 provides that if after thirty days following the notice the insurer has failed to cease the misrepresentations, and other conditions are met, the superintendent shall take action under sections 3901.19 to 3901.26.

Under ORC §3955.08, member insurers must be notified of a guaranty association assessment at least how many days before it is due?

  1. 60 days
  2. 15 days
  3. 10 days
  4. 30 days ✓

Why: §3955.08(A)(3) requires each member insurer to be notified of the assessment not later than thirty days before it is due.

For an OCCUPATIONAL DISEASE claim, ORC 4123.85 bars the claim unless application is made within one year after which event?

  1. The employer changed its NAICS code unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force according to the insurer's rules
  2. The employee was first hired
  3. The employee first felt any symptom
  4. The disability due to the disease began (with a limited extension after diagnosis) or within one year after death ✓

Why: ORC 4123.85 bars occupational-disease claims unless filed within one year after the disability began (or within a limited period after diagnosis), or within one year after death.

Which of the following is typically a FIRST-PARTY coverage under a cyber policy?

  1. Bodily injury liability
  2. Advertising injury
  3. Breach notification, credit monitoring, and data restoration costs for the insured ✓
  4. Defense of a third-party privacy lawsuit unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force

Why: First-party cyber coverages reimburse the insured's own costs, such as breach notification, forensics, and data restoration.

Under ORC 2745.01, deliberately removing an equipment safety guard creates what, if an injury results?

  1. A rebuttable presumption that the removal was committed with intent to injure ✓
  2. Loss of the employer's state-fund coverage unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  3. Automatic criminal liability
  4. A conclusive finding of negligence per se

Why: ORC 2745.01(C) provides that deliberate removal of an equipment safety guard (or deliberate misrepresentation of a hazardous substance) creates a rebuttable presumption of intent to injure if injury results.

Which perils does the Broad Causes of Loss form ADD beyond the Basic form?

  1. Earthquake and flood
  2. War and nuclear hazard unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  3. Wear and tear
  4. Falling objects; weight of snow, ice, or sleet; and water damage ✓

Why: The Broad form adds falling objects; weight of snow, ice, or sleet; water damage; and includes a limited collapse provision.

After a license is suspended for nonrenewal, within what period may the individual apply for reinstatement?

  1. Within thirty days following the suspension
  2. There is no reinstatement period; the agent must reapply as new immediately under the policy's terms
  3. Within six months of issuance of the suspension order
  4. Within the twelve-month period following the date by which the license should have been renewed ✓

Why: § 3905.06(E) allows reinstatement within the twelve-month period following the date by which the license should have been renewed.

A document attached to a policy that adds, deletes, or modifies coverage is called an:

  1. Affidavit
  2. Application
  3. Binder
  4. Endorsement ✓

Why: An endorsement (or rider) is a written amendment that changes the terms of the base policy.

Personal property is covered worldwide under a Homeowners policy, but property usually at another residence is limited to:

  1. 100% of Coverage C in that particular circumstance
  2. No coverage at all
  3. Coverage B limits
  4. The greater of 10% of Coverage C or $1,000 ✓

Why: Personal property usually kept at a residence other than the insured location is limited to the greater of 10% of Coverage C or $1,000.

Self-insurance is best defined as:

  1. Buying insurance from an offshore carrier unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  2. Purchasing an umbrella policy
  3. An entity setting aside its own funds to pay for its own anticipated losses rather than transferring the risk ✓
  4. Joining a FAIR Plan

Why: Self-insurance is a risk-retention technique in which an organization budgets and funds its own losses internally instead of transferring the risk to an insurer.

"Specified Causes of Loss" physical damage coverage under the BACF differs from Comprehensive in that it:

  1. Covers collision damage
  2. Covers only named perils such as fire, theft, windstorm, vandalism, and certain others ✓
  3. Covers more perils than comprehensive unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  4. Has no deductible

Why: Specified Causes of Loss is a named-peril coverage (fire, lightning, theft, windstorm, hail, flood, mischief, etc.), narrower and cheaper than comprehensive.

A nonresident who is licensed as a surplus lines producer in the producer's home state shall receive what in Ohio under § 3905.07?

  1. A temporary agent license only
  2. A limited lines credit insurance license
  3. A nonresident surplus lines broker license ✓
  4. A resident surplus lines broker license

Why: § 3905.07(H) provides that such a nonresident shall receive a nonresident surplus lines broker license.

After how many weeks of temporary total disability may the BWC schedule the claimant for an evaluation to determine whether the disability has become permanent?

  1. 260 weeks
  2. 100 weeks
  3. 150 weeks
  4. 200 weeks ✓

Why: ORC 4123.56(A) provides that after 200 weeks of TT benefits the BWC may schedule an examination to evaluate whether the disability has become permanent.

Under § 3901.213(D)(1), a value-added product or service offered at no or reduced cost must, among other things, be primarily designed to do one or more enumerated things. Which is one of them?

  1. Increase the agent's commission on renewal
  2. Guarantee a minimum return on the policy
  3. Replace the policy's stated benefits
  4. Provide loss mitigation or loss control ✓

Why: Section 3901.213(D)(1)(c) lists permissible purposes including providing loss mitigation or loss control, reducing claim costs, education about risk, monitoring risk, enhancing health or financial wellness, post-loss services, and incentivizing behavioral change.

Under ORC §3937.31, do the cancellation and nonrenewal restrictions prohibit lawful premium surcharges or other lawful changes in premium?

  1. No; the sections do not prohibit lawful surcharges, adjustments, or other changes in premium ✓
  2. Yes; any premium change is treated as a prohibited cancellation
  3. Only mid-term surcharges are permitted
  4. Premium changes are permitted only at the superintendent's direction in that particular circumstance

Why: §3937.31(B)(2) provides the sections do not prohibit lawful surcharges, adjustments, or other changes in premium.

An insured increases jewelry coverage by scheduling items. Scheduled items differ from blanket Coverage C because they:

  1. Are excluded from theft
  2. Have lower limits
  3. Require a mortgage clause unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  4. Are individually listed and valued, often with broader perils and no deductible ✓

Why: Scheduled personal property is individually listed and valued, generally insured on a broader open-peril basis, often with no deductible and above Coverage C sublimits.

Under the GLBA privacy rule, an insurer that intends to share a customer's nonpublic personal financial information with a nonaffiliated third party generally must first:

  1. Obtain a court order unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  2. Notify FEMA
  3. Cancel the policy
  4. Provide a privacy notice and the opportunity to opt out ✓

Why: GLBA requires insurers to deliver a privacy notice and, before sharing nonpublic personal information with nonaffiliated third parties, give the consumer a chance to opt out.

Under § 3905.14, when may the superintendent issue a cease-and-desist order, and when must the hearing be set?

  1. Only with the insurer's consent; no hearing is required
  2. Only after a conviction; the hearing is within ninety days unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  3. When a violation causes substantial and material harm; the notice sets a hearing not more than fifteen days after the order ✓
  4. At any time; the hearing must be within one year

Why: § 3905.14(H) allows a cease-and-desist order where a violation causes substantial and material harm, with a hearing set not more than fifteen days after the order.

A client asks for flood coverage; the producer forgets to bind it, and a flood later destroys the home. This situation most directly creates exposure under:

  1. The producer's E&O (errors and omissions) coverage ✓
  2. The TRIA backstop
  3. Crop insurance
  4. The Do-Not-Call rules in that particular circumstance

Why: Failing to obtain requested coverage is a classic errors and omissions claim against the producer.

The premium basis for workers' compensation insurance is generally expressed as a rate applied to:

  1. Square footage of the workplace
  2. Gross sales revenue
  3. Each employee per year
  4. Each $100 of payroll ✓

Why: WC premium is calculated using rates per $100 of payroll for each job classification, then adjusted by other factors.

A farmer wants protection against widespread yield loss from drought across an entire growing season. The most appropriate coverage is:

  1. Multiple Peril Crop Insurance (MPCI) through the RMA ✓
  2. A FAIR Plan
  3. Private crop-hail insurance in that particular circumstance
  4. An umbrella policy

Why: MPCI covers broad yield losses from many natural perils, including drought, making it the appropriate choice over narrow crop-hail coverage.

Under the PAP, coverage for an auto used in the business of selling, repairing, or servicing autos (the "auto business" exclusion) is:

  1. Excluded for liability when an insured is employed in the auto business and using a non-owned auto in that business ✓
  2. Always covered
  3. Covered under Part D only unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force according to the insurer's rules
  4. Covered under Part B

Why: The PAP excludes liability for any insured maintaining or using vehicles in the auto business (e.g., garages, sales) for non-owned autos; such exposure belongs on a garage/dealers policy.

Under Ohio Rev. Code § 3905.06, the 'casualty' line of authority provides insurance coverage primarily against what?

  1. Sickness and bodily injury only
  2. Legal liability, including death, injury, disability, or damage to real or personal property ✓
  3. Defects in title to real property
  4. Loss of human life including endowment and annuity benefits unless an exception clearly applies

Why: § 3905.06(B)(4) defines 'casualty' as coverage against legal liability, including death, injury, disability, or damage to property.